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Copyright 1994 - 2011 Endtime Prophecy Net

Published On : May 26, 1997

Last Updated : January 3, 2009

Why Did Jesus Have To Leave First?

In my article entitled 'Sexes In Heaven?/Is God Female?,' I
proposed the possibility that the Holy Spirit might be a
separate female entity from the Father and the Son, thus
creating what we might refer to as the 'Heavenly Family' of
God the Father, Jesus the Son, the motherly Holy Spirit. As
I expected, this theoretical position has been met with a
degree of opposition from Catholics and some traditional
Christians. I say 'some' because I have received feedback
from some of my readers who concur with this unorthodox view
of the Holy Spirit possibly being female. Having said that,
I am now going to offer another possibility which might be
more appealing to some, particularly to those believers in
the Trinity doctrine. In the book of Matthew we find the
following verses:

"Again I say unto you, That if two of you shall agree on
earth as touching any thing that they shall ask, it shall be
done for them of my Father which is in heaven. For where two
or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the
midst of them." (Matthew 18:19-20)

In the Gospel of John we also find this verse:

"Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me,
the works that I do shall he do also; and greater works than
these shall he do; because I go unto my Father." (John

In reading the above verses, a new window of possibility
presents itself. Notice that Jesus is saying that where two
or three are gathered together in His name, He is in the
midst of them. That may be part of the key. He doesn't say
God's Spirit or the Holy Spirit is in the midst of them, but
He specifically says 'I am in the midst of them.' Is He
speaking figuratively here? Or is He saying His actual
spiritual presence or essence will be with them? If we
accept the latter possibility, the verse from John makes
even more sense.

Why will they do greater works? Because Jesus goes to His
Father. In other words, by being absent in body, it appears
that Jesus might be saying He will be present with them in
Spirit in a much greater way than He could ever be with them
in the flesh.

In John 14 where Jesus is discussing how He will send the
Holy Spirit, we read the following verses:

"And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another
Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever; Even the
Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it
seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he
dwelleth with you, and shall be in you. I will not leave you
comfortless: I will come to you." (John 14:16-18)

If we look at this closely, it offers some interesting
possibilities. Here we have Jesus promising to send the Holy
Spirit. Apart from calling it another Comforter, Jesus
refers to it as the Spirit of truth. Didn't Jesus say He was
the truth a little earlier in this same chapter?:

"Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the
life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me." (John

Jesus then goes on to tell His disciples that the world
cannot receive the Spirit because they don't see him or know
him. But then He says that His disciples do know him and
that he dwells with them (present tense) and will be in them
(future tense). Exactly what is Jesus saying here? Well, in
saying that the world seeth him (the Spirit) not, it appears
that Jesus is referring to their spiritual blindness, that
they haven't recognized Him as the Messiah. Consider these
verses which confirm this very thought:

"Let them alone: they be blind leaders of the blind. And if
the blind lead the blind, both shall fall into the ditch."
(Matthew 15:14)

"Woe unto you, ye blind guides, which say, Whosoever shall
swear by the temple, it is nothing; but whosoever shall
swear by the gold of the temple, he is a debtor! Ye fools
and blind: for whether is greater, the gold, or the temple
that sanctifieth the gold? And, Whosoever shall swear by the
altar, it is nothing; but whosoever sweareth by the gift
that is upon it, he is guilty. Ye fools and blind: for
whether is greater, the gift, or the altar that sanctifieth
the gift? Whoso therefore shall swear by the altar, sweareth
by it, and by all things thereon. And whoso shall swear by
the temple, sweareth by it, and by him that dwelleth
therein. And he that shall swear by heaven, sweareth by the
throne of God, and by him that sitteth thereon. Woe unto
you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye pay tithe of
mint and anise and cummin, and have omitted the weightier
matters of the law, judgment, mercy, and faith: these ought
ye to have done, and not to leave the other undone. Ye blind
guides, which strain at a gnat, and swallow a camel. Woe
unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye make
clean the outside of the cup and of the platter, but within
they are full of extortion and excess. Thou blind Pharisee,
cleanse first that which is within the cup and platter, that
the outside of them may be clean also." (Matthew 23:16-26)

Continuing with the verses regarding the Comforter, Jesus
said that it dwelt with them. Well, who dwelt or abode with
the disciples at that time? Jesus did! Of course, you could
also interpret this as saying that the Spirit abode with
them through Jesus' presence. Jesus also said that they (the
disciples) saw him. Who did the disciples see? Jesus! Again,
you could also interpret this as meaning that they saw, or
that the workings of the Spirit were revealed to them
through Jesus' miracles. And notice His final words: "I will
not leave you comfortless: I will come to you." In
everything Jesus has said to His disciples about the
Comforter, it appears that He could very easily be
describing Himself. He is the Truth, they see Him, He dwells
with them, and He will not leave them comfortless but will
come to them again, both in a physical sense, (after His
resurrection), and in a spiritual sense as well (after they
receive the baptism of the Holy Ghost in Acts chapter 2.
Notice too that Jesus said the Comforter would 'abide with
you for ever.' Consider what Jesus said at the very
beginning of this chapter:

"Let not your heart be troubled: ye believe in God, believe
also in me. In my Father's house are many mansions: if it
were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place
for you. And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will
come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am,
there ye may be also." (John 14:1-3)

Doesn't this sound like the Comforter (Jesus) abiding, or
dwelling with them forever?

Thus, there is a strong possibility that Jesus may be
equating Himself with the Holy Spirit, which He also
referred to as 'HE.' One final verse which shows the
necessity of Jesus departing before He could send the Holy
Spirit is John 16:7:

"Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you
that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not
come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you."
(John 16:7)

This is the second time we find Jesus saying that He will
send the Comforter to them AFTER He leaves them. Why is it
so important that Jesus has to leave before the Holy Spirit,
the Comforter, can come? Why can't they both be present at
the same time? Could it be because what Jesus is trying to
tell them, which they were apparently having a hard time
understanding since His resurrection hasn't occurred yet, is
that the Holy Spirit is His very essence, His own spiritual
presence? This would certainly clear up the idea of Him not
only dwelling with them (at present) but also in them (after
His resurrection).

Now, I am not definitely saying that Jesus Christ and the
Holy Spirit are one and the same, anymore that I
conclusively said that the Holy Spirit is female in nature
in 'Sexes In Heaven?/Is God Female?' What I am doing is
suggesting the possibility so my readers can come to their
own conclusions based on the scriptural evidence I have
provided. One thing we do know, is that events occurred just
as Jesus had promised. Soon after His resurrection, the
first disciples did in fact receive the gift of the Holy
Spirit while waiting in the upper room in Jerusalem. As soon
as Jesus was gone, the Holy Ghost came. Could this mean the
physical body left so the spiritual essence of Jesus could
return to empower them from on high?

If we assume that what I have said so far is correct, this
offers a really interesting angle to His virgin birth as
well. In Matthew chapter one we read the following verses:

"Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his
mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came
together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost."
(Matthew 1:18)

"But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of
the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou
son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for
that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost."
(Matthew 1:20)

Exactly what is meant by these two verses? Well, we could
interpret it to mean that Jesus being formed in Mary's womb
was the result of the creative force of the Holy Ghost,
which is in essence the creative force of God Himself. A
more radical interpretation would be that 'found with child
of the Holy Ghost' really means 'found with THE child of the
Holy Ghost.' In other words, the Holy Ghost itself actually
incarnated in Mary's womb to become the fetus Jesus. Using
this same manner of interpretation, the second verse might
read 'for that which is conceived in her IS the Holy Ghost.'
Again, meaning that the Holy Ghost itself, the very spirit
of Jesus, incarnated in Mary's womb. Some might find this a
bit shocking to consider. Others might say it is more in
line with their idea of the Holy Trinity.

If we are willing for a moment to consider this possibility,
this might add some greater meaning to some other verses
which deal with Jesus' healing ability:

"And Jesus, immediately knowing in himself that virtue had
gone out of him, turned him about in the press, and said,
Who touched my clothes?" (Mark 5:30)

"And the whole multitude sought to touch him: for there went
virtue out of him, and healed them all." (Luke 6:19)

"And Jesus said, Somebody hath touched me: for I perceive
that virtue is gone out of me." (Luke 8:46)

Exactly what is this virtue? If Jesus was the Holy Spirit
incarnate, could it be referring to the fact that each time
He healed someone, it was like a little bit of the Holy
Spirit was passed to them? One verse which just occurred to
me is John 3:34 which reads:

"For he whom God hath sent speaketh the words of God: for
God giveth not the Spirit by measure unto him." (John 3:34)

This idea goes along with what I spoke about in the article
"Lying Wonders Of The Endtime?". That is, Jesus' physical
body on earth merely acted as a prism or conduit for the
Spirit/Light of His Father in Heaven. If the Holy Ghost is
indeed the creative force aspect of God, then it would make
it much easier to understand what is meant by not giving the
Spirit to Him by measure. A creative force would never run
out because it would continually renew itself. Not only
that, if the person Jesus Christ was the physical
manifestation of the Holy Spirit, then this also helps to
explain the first verses in John chapter one:

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God,
and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with
God. All things were made by him; and without him was not
any thing made that was made." (John 1:1-3)

A lot of different interpretations have been applied to the
above verses over the centuries, but I have heard very few
people promote this one:

'In the beginning was the Word': this obviously means that
Jesus was in the beginning because a little further down, as
well as in many other places, Jesus is called the Word of

'and the Word was with God': Jesus has been with His Father
God since the beginning of time.

'and the Word was God.': Does this mean that Jesus was/is
God and God was /is Jesus? This is the common view accepted
by trinitarians, but is it the correct one? Before jumping
to the wrong conclusions, let's consider what the rest of
these verses say.

'The same was in the beginning with God.': Well, that is the
second time John is saying that the Word was WITH God. Is it
beginning to sound a bit confusing? First John says the Word
was with God, then he says the Word was God, and now again
he says the Word was with God. What is going on here? Can't
he make up his mind?

'All things were made by him; and without him was not any
thing made that was made.': Okay, now we can sort this all
out more easily. In my view, what this is saying is that
Jesus and His Father God were together in the beginning of
time. Two separate entities. That is why John says 'WITH'
two times. He is trying to clarify that point. Well, if that
is the case, why does he also say that the Word was God?
Simple. If you read what comes next, it makes it quite
clear...that is, if you are willing to see it. The main
subject of John's discourse here is NOT God, but rather the
Word, Jesus. John is giving us an introduction to the Word
of God, to Jesus. John is saying that the Word made all
things. Jesus made all things. He is saying that when we
read that word 'God' in Genesis chapter one, it isn't
talking about God the Father, it is talking about Jesus. It
is saying that Jesus made all things. Thus, as John says,
'the Word was God. 'Do you see my point now?

Now, before you fly off the handle and start saying I am
crazy and a false prophet and this is nothing but more
heresy, perhaps you better read the following verses. The
Apostle Paul had some pretty deep spiritual insights.
Consider what he said to the Colossians:

"Who hath delivered us from the power of darkness, and hath
translated us into the kingdom of his dear Son: In whom we
have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of
sins: Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn
of every creature: For by him were all things created, that
are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible,
whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or
powers: all things were created by him, and for him: And he
is before all things, and by him all things consist. And he
is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning,
the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might
have the preeminence. For it pleased the Father that in him
should all fulness dwell;" (Colossians 1:13-19)

Please read these verses closely. They are NOT talking about
God. Paul is very specifically describing Jesus' role and
ministry to us. In whom do we have redemption? JESUS! Who is
the image of the invisible God? JESUS! Who was the firstborn
of every creature? JESUS! By whom were all things created?
JESUS! And on and on it goes. JESUS is the head of the body,
the church. JESUS is the beginning, the firstborn from the
dead. Paul is saying the same exact thing as John said in
John chapter one regarding the creation. In essence, they
are both saying that when you read Genesis chapter one, it
is talking about Jesus when it says 'God', and NOT God the
Father as many erroneously believe. It's right there as
plain as day if you are willing to receive it.

So then, this takes us back to our talk about the Holy
Spirit being the creative force of God. And who is the
creative force of God? Jesus the Son is. We have now looked
at several places in the Bible which tell us that. This
explains why He had the power to heal so many people, why it
says He had the Spirit without measure. He was the very
embodiment of the Holy Spirit. That word 'virtue' must then
be referring to a small spark of the Spirit leaving Him
whenever He healed people. It is like His very own creative
force rebuilt their broken bodies, because He is the one who
designed the human body to begin with.

Following this line of thought, this would explain why John
the Baptist said he baptized with water, but there was one
coming who would baptize with the Holy Ghost:

"I indeed have baptized you with water: but he shall baptize
you with the Holy Ghost." (Mark 1:8).

The reason Jesus would be able to baptize with the Holy
Ghost is because He was the Holy Ghost incarnate...or so we
are hypothesizing. Well, so far this argument may seem
rather solid to some. Unfortunatley, if we follow this all
the way through to the end, we run into a few problems. For
example, if Jesus was the Holy Ghost incarnate, how do we
explain this verse which speaks of the birth of John the

"For he shall be great in the sight of the Lord, and shall
drink neither wine nor strong drink; and he shall be filled
with the Holy Ghost, even from his mother's womb." (Luke

It doesn't make sense that both John and Jesus can be the
embodiment of the Holy Ghost. We are told that Jesus was
CONCEIVED of the Holy Ghost and that John was FILLED with
the Holy Ghost. All of a sudden, in spite of our attempt to
try to prove otherwise, it now appears that Jesus and the
Holy Ghost are NOT one and the same thing. The Holy Ghost
appears to be an exterior force to both Jesus and John, a
separate spiritual entity or power. Unfortunately, the more
probing we do, the worse things seem to get for this
trinitarian position. Consider these verse in Matthew

"Wherefore I say unto you, All manner of sin and blasphemy
shall be forgiven unto men: but the blasphemy against the
Holy Ghost shall not be forgiven unto men. And whosoever
speaketh a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven
him: but whosoever speaketh against the Holy Ghost, it shall
not be forgiven him, neither in this world, neither in the
world to come." (Matthew 12:31-32)

If God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Ghost are
all one entity as proposed by Trinitarians, how is it
possible to blaspheme the one without blaspheming the other?
Jesus is cearly saying here that blaspemy against Himself
will be forgiven, but not blaspemy against the Holy Ghost. I
have always believed that blasphemy against the Holy Ghost
equates to non-belief in Jesus Christ as the Messiah. Why?
Because Jesus said that the Spirit bears witness to the
truth, and the most important truth in the entire Bible as
far as I know, is that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh
and died for the sins of the world. The Apostle John seems
to confirm this in the following verses:

"Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that
confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God:
And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is
come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of
antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and
even now already is it in the world." (1 John 4:2-3)

This is why blasphemy against the Holy Ghost cannot be
forgiven, because it testifies to the fact that Jesus is the
Son of God who died for the sins of the world. The primary
reason the first Apostles received the Holy Ghost was to be
a witness of the truth in all the world, to spread the Good
News of the life, death and resurrection of Jesus Christ.
Until a person accepts Jesus' death and resurrection as
truth, they are damned for eternity. To blaspheme the Holy
Ghost is to call God a liar, to say that He didn't send His
Son, that He doesn't love us, that there is no hope of
eternal life, etc. It gets really hideous if you take it all
the way to the end. But we know that this is not true, don't

"In hope of eternal life, which God, that cannot lie,
promised before the world began;" (Titus 1:2)

Thus, from this exercise in logic and deductive reasoning,
it appears that I have basically arrived at the same
conclusion I came to in the 'Sexes In Heaven?/Is God
Female?' article. And that is that, contrary to popular
Catholic belief, the Trinity just doesn't hold up under
scriptural scrutiny, even whe we try to make it work.
Clearly, Jesus and the Holy Ghost are two separate entities,
otherwise, there is no way you could blaspheme one without
blasmpheming the other as Jesus says in the above verses.
Let me again remind you of the verses from the first epistle
of John:

"For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father,
the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. And
there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and
the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one." (1
John 5:7-8)

These three are one in UNITY because they agree as one. They
are not three entities all rolled up into one. In order for
an agreement to exist, there must be SEPARATE and
independently-thinking parties who decide to agree upon
something. I just can't see God agreeing with Himself, can
you? It defies logic. I hope you found this discourse

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